A 60 year old man presents to urgent complaining of painful, swollen left knee. He previously has had no problems with this knee. 3 days prior to onset, he went out dancing for 2-3 hours but recalls no specific injury. Examination of the knee reveals a moderate sized effusion and mild pain with any range on motion. Plain x-ray shows no fracture.
Which of the following is the best next management?
a) MRI of knee.
b) Aspiration of the effusion.
c) Rest, ice and leg elevation.
d) Physical therapy referral.
e) Arthroscopy.
