A 54 year old man presents to ER complaining of epigastric discomfort, which began while he was walking after dinner about one hour earlier.He hasn't received medical care for several years.On examination he is moderately obese and his Bp 160/98. His ECG reveals inferior wall myocardial infarction.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A) Trial of antacid immediately.
B) Reassurance and arrange outpatient follow up.
C) Arrange for cardiac ICU bed.
D) Begin thrombolytic therapy in the ER.
E) Arrange for urgent echocardiogram.
