A 70 year old man presents to urgent care complaining of a painful, swollen left knee. He previously has had no problems with this knee.
3 days prior to onset, he went out dancing for 3 hours but recalls no specific injury.
**Examination of the knee reveals a moderate sized effusion and mild pain with any range of motion. Plain x-ray shows no fracture.
Which of the following is the best next management?
a) MRI of Knee.
b) Aspiration of effusion fluid.
c) Physical therapy referral.
d) Arthroscopy.
e) Rest, ice and leg elevation.
