A 28 year old man presents to the physician's office for a routine health maintenance examination. He has a two year history of bronchial asthma for which he uses an albuterol inhaler. He states that he experiences asthma symptoms an average of 2 times per week, for which his albuterol inhaler provides relief. He has not had nighttime awakenings over the past month. He does not use tobacco, alcohol or illicit drugs. His family history is significant for asthma in his grandfather.
Physical examination is unremarkable.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in his management?
a) Add long acting beta-2 agonist inhaler.
c) Add inhaled corticosteroids.
d) Add oral theophylline.
e) Continue current medical regimen.
