A 24 years old primigravid woman comes to the physician because of recent onset amenorrhea. Her last menstrual period was 7 weeks ago, and she has had nausea for the past two weeks. A urine pregnancy test is +ve. She is evaluated for dysphagia, and 1 week ago she had a barium swallow examination. She is concerned for the baby because her recent exposure to radiation.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
a) Reassurance and regular antenatal check up.
b) Advise a theraputic abortion.
c) Explain the benefits and the risks of abortion.
d) Advise amniocentesis and karyotyping.
e) Pelvic U/S.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
a) Reassurance and regular antenatal check up.
b) Advise a theraputic abortion.
c) Explain the benefits and the risks of abortion.
d) Advise amniocentesis and karyotyping.
e) Pelvic U/S.
